What Modern Hebrew is, if not a development of the old language, differs from scholar to scholar. Some consider it to be "Yiddish with Hebrew words"; others, including Zuckermann, highlight the impact of Yiddish but also of other languages spoken by the revivalists, most notably Russian and Polish. Yet others, including Paul Wexler, consider Modern Hebrew to be a Slavic and not at all a Semitic language; hence, the title of Paul Wexler's 1990 book: The Schizoid Nature of Modern Hebrew: A Slavic Language in Search of a Semitic Past. So what makes one doubt that Modern Hebrew is a Semitic language?
While Ben-Yehuda searched Biblical, Rabbinic and, to a lesser extent, Medieval Hebrew sources for words and created new words based on the Semitic paradigm patterns (binyanim for verbs, mishkalot for nouns), when it comes to grammatical (i.e., syntactic) patterns, the situation is more complicated. Since Ben-Yehuda and other early revivalists spoke only broken Hebrew, their grammar, while reflecting (Late) Biblical Hebrew, also exhibited significant aspects of Yiddish, Russian, Lithuanian and sometimes even German and French. And in most cases the revivalists were probably not even aware of this grammar-mixing, much the same way that people who speak a foreign language often unknowingly make mistakes based on the grammar of their native language.
Consider, for example, the matter of word order. In Biblical Hebrew, the predominant word order is Verb-Subject-Object (VSO), as illustrated by the following example from Genesis 26:11 (the symbol "?" marks a glottal stop; "ACC" in the gloss is accusative case marker).
va- yacav 'avimelex 'et kol-ha-?am
and-warned Avimelech ACC all-the-people
'So Avimelech warned all the people...'
In contrast, in Modern Hebrew the predominant word order is Subject-Verb-Object (SVO), as in the following example:
Dani 'ohev 'et Ruti.
Danny loves ACC Ruth
'Danny loves Ruth.'
Moreover, in Modern Hebrew indefinite subjects can appear after the verb (actually, at the end of the sentence), as in the following example:
pana 'elaj 'ezeʃehu baxur
faced to-me some chap
'A chap came up to me.'
Does this word order pattern in Modern Hebrew look like Russian to you? I thought it might.
But the word order patterns of Modern Hebrew do not always correlate with those of Russian. For example, in both Russian and Modern Hebrew wh-questions (or content questions), the question word is fronted to the beginning of the question. For example, if you question the time of a certain event, the question word matay (in Modern Hebrew) or kogda (in Russian) must appear in the beginning of the question (note that this is not true of all languages; for example, in the corresponding Mandarin Chinese or Japanese question the question word would appear next to the verb):
Matay ata xozer? [Modern Hebrew]
Kogda ty verneshsja? [Russian]
when you return
'When do you return?'
But Russian and Modern Hebrew differ when it comes to their treatment of multiple wh-questions: in Russian both question words must appear in the beginning of the sentence, while in Modern Hebrew only one of them does:
Mi xozer matay? [Modern Hebrew]
who returns when
Kto kogda vernetsja? [Russian]
who when returns
Both: 'Who returns when?'
Similarly, Modern Hebrew does not exhibit all the same word order patterns as Yiddish does. For instance, Yiddish is a verb-second language, meaning that the tensed verb must appear in the second position, as in:
Oyfn veg vet dos yingl zen a kats.
on-the way will the boy see a cat
'On the way, the boy will see a cat.'
This is not true of Modern Hebrew, where -- much like in English -- the tensed verb follows the subject, regardless of what appears in the first position:
Ba-derex ha-yeled haya ro'e xatul.
on-the-way the-boy was seeing cat
'On the way, the boy used to see a cat.'
To recap, the word order patterns of Modern Hebrew are in some cases similar to those of Russian or Yiddish, but in other cases they are not. In fact, even the SVO order in clauses may not be a reflection of a Russian influence after all. While classical Semitic languages -- Biblical Hebrew and Classical Arabic (the language of the Quran) -- are VSO languages, the modern variants of these languages are SVO languages. This includes not only Modern Hebrew with its SVO pattern illustrated above, but spoken, colloquial varieties of Arabic as well. Even Modern Standard Arabic allows SVO order alongside the more traditional VSO order. And it is in SVO order that the verb must agree fully with its subject, as shown by the following examples (3 = 3rd person, M = masculine, SG = singular, DU = dual):
VSO: singular (i.e., default) agreement on the verb
?ištarā rrajulāni kitāban
bought(3.M.SG) the-two-men book
SVO: verb must agree fully (i.e., in gender and number)
?inna rrajulayni štarayā kitāban
indeed the-two-men bought(M.DU) book
While Modern Arabic too developed in part under the influence of other neighboring languages, those languages, which belong mostly to the Cushitic, Berber, Turkic and Iranian language families were typically not SVO languages, but SOV languages. Hence, the development of Arabic from VSO to SVO cannot be ascribed to the influence of the languages it has been in contact with.
So all in all, while the influence of the revivalists' native tongues -- Russian, Yiddish, Polish -- cannot be denied, Modern Hebrew seems to follow roughly the same path as other Semitic languages, such as Arabic. In the following posting, we will consider how Modern Hebrew has changed since the early revival days.
In my process of learning Hebrew (ongoing!), I thought I'd detected a strong V2 tendency in the language, especially when the fronted constituent is an adverbial phrase; reading Haaretz, for instances, one often sees sentences like 'ba-pgisha amar rosh ha-memshalah...' vs. 'rosh ha-memshalah amar etmol...'. This isn't necessarily a Germanic influence - I'm a native speaker of Polish and it feels natural, though not obligatory, to move the verb to V2 in that language as well. But wouldn't this be evidence of Germanic/Slavic influence?
ReplyDeleteNB, I seem to recall Mishnaic Hebrew also having a strong V2 tendency, as well as influencing many modern developments like using the present participle for the present tense, and relegating the former imperfect to the future.
Michael: Thank you for your insightful comment!
ReplyDeleteYou are absolutely right about your observation regarding sentences like 'ba-pgisha amar rosh ha-memshalah...' -- these are instances of the so-called Stylistic Inversion which optionally reverses the order of the subject and the verb whenever an element other than the subject precedes the verb. This construction is discussed in detail in Borer (1995), Borer (1984), Shlonsky (1987).
There are two major differences between Stylistic Inversion and the classical Germanic V2. First, Stylistic Inversion is possible in embedded clauses, whereas V2 in such languages as German and Dutch is not possible in embedded clauses. Only a few Germanic languages feature V2 in embedded clauses, including Icelandic and Yiddish. The second major difference between Stylistic Inversion in Modern Hebrew and V2 in Germanic languages (all of them, including Yiddish!) is that Stylistic Inversion is optional, whereas V2 is obligatory. And when it comes to Slavic languages, they too allow *optional* alternative orders to their basic SVO order. Could it be an influence of Slavic on Hebrew? Possible. But a more likely story is that Stylistic Inversion is a side-effect of a transition from VSO to SVO, as Borer (1995) has analyzed it.
Borer, Hagit (1984) Restrictive relatives in Modern Hebrew. Natural Language and Linguistic Theory 2: 219-260.
Borer, Hagit (1995) The Ups and Downs of Hebrew Verb Movement. Natural Language and Linguistic Theory 13(3): 527-606.
Shlonsky, Ur (1987) Null and Displaced Subjects. Ph.D. dissertation, MIT.